When are statutes useful in common law

As many of you now know, there are no statutes in common law, which is why government does not prefer common law. It makes it much more difficult to control people. Free people live under common law. They are sovereigns and cannot be told what to do by anyone. They are not held accountable for anything they do until such time as they injure another.

But there are times when statutes can be used in a sovereign plaintiffs court of record.

When government has come against you, a people of the united states, the correct next response is to file a counterclaim in a court of record. This takes you case out of the hands of the government's hands and puts it into your hands. As the counterplaintiff, you are the highest authority in your court. If you were arrested or in any way had you natural rights violated, you have suffered damages. Statutes can support your claim of damages inflicted on you from the perpetrators of the crime against you.

Just for an example, let's say that you stopped filing income tax returns and paying income tax since you learned that sovereigns are not subject to statutes. Let's also presume that the IRS starts sending you letters and you return letters back to them challenging their jurisdiction and demanding they provide the law that gives this collection company authority over you, a people. Let's follow this further with the IRS filing a "Notice of Federal Tax Lien" with a local county court clerk.

The typical way the IRS does this is an employee of this collection company will send a fax to the local county clerk. The document will not be signed by anyone and the actual tax lien will not accompany the document as required by statute. They commonly do not follow due process either. This happened to me and the employee who sent the fax to the Florida county clerk, did so 4 years after I no longer lived in Florida and 10 months after learning that where I moved to in Louisiana. he reason they do this is to damage your credit report. This make thing difficult for you, the people. 

Sometimes after the "Notice of Federal Tax Lien" which is not a lien, is used to garnish your wages or attempt to do so. So if the attempt to garnish your wages is successful, you have ow suffered damages from both the defamation of your reputation amongst creditor, but also with your employer. This not to mention the loss of your wages or earnings.

So how can you use the statutes against them? In this case, the statutes can be used to justify your damages. Even though statutes do not apply to people, they do apply to corporations. The IRS is not, in fact, a government agency. All government agencies are listed in Title 5 of the United States Code. Even if it were a government agency, it still does not have jurisdiction over American people even if you are a citizen subject to government jurisdiction. The reader should also keep in mind that none of the states nor the federal government has seated an original jurisdiction government since somewhere around 1968.

Since government agencies at all levels are now incorporated, they have now reduced themselves to an even lower authority over people as was opined in Bank of United States v. Planters' Bank of Georgia 22 U.S. 9 Wheat. 904 904 (1824).

As the sovereign plaintiff in your court of record, you may like the verbiage of part of the code and use it to decree the law. For example, if your have filed an action against the IRS and the Untied States (corp.), you could decree that 26 USC Section 7806 is law. This supports you claim to damages, because that section says that Title 26 is not law and the IRS and the United States were acting under color of law to commit a fraud. Remember, even though it is you court, you still have to convince those who will help you carry out your orders that they are just and fair. It makes no difference if you render a decision in your court ordering the IRS to pay you $30 billion if you can;t get anyone to help in carrying out you order.

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